Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 05:28
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
'Cheers' star's cause of death released - KSDK
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Nintendo Switch 2’s faster chip can dramatically improve original Switch games - Ars Technica
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Packers waive receiver, open up roster spot - Acme Packing Company
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.